Đề luyện thi vào Lớp 10 chuyên Tiếng Anh - Đề 60 (Có đáp án)

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1. ENGLISH PRACTICE 60 I. Choose one word whose stress pattern is different from the others. 1. A. evaporate B. temperature C. impossible D. experiment 2. A. gravity B. professor C. pyramid D. remedy 3. A. abandon B. discover C. imagine D. satisfy 4. A. activity B. epidemic C. philosopher D. significance 5. A. picture B. business C. stranger D. return II. Choose from the four options given (marked A, B, C and D) one best answer to complete each sentence. 6. He soon received promotion, for his superior realized that he was a man of considerable___. A. opportunity B. ability C. possibility D. future 7. Take the number 7 bus and get___ at Forest Road. A. off B. up C. down D. outside 8. Some people think it is___ to use long and little-known words. A. sensitive B. clever C. intentional D. skilled 9. Don't touch the cat, he may___ you. A. scratch B. kick C. tear D. scream 10. These old houses are going to be___ soon. A. run down B. knocked out C. pulled down D. laid out 11. The house is___ at the corner of a busy street. A. put B. stood C. placed D. situated 12. You must be careful when you wash this___ silk blouse. A. delicate B. weak C. feeble D. sensitive 13. The stolen jewels were___ a lot of money. A. worth B. priced C. valued D. cost 14. Would you be___ to hold the door open? A. too kind B. as kind C. kind enough D. so kind 15. He couldn't make the radio___. A. work B. to work C. working D. worked 16. I___ do that if I were you. A. won't B. don't C. shan't D. wouldn't 17. While studying he was financially dependent___ his wife. A. of B. to C. from D. on 18. He often___ about his expensive car. A. boasts B. shows C. prides D. praised 19. She isn't___ well with the new manager. A. going on B. getting on C. keeping on D. taking on 20. What do you mean, he's watching television? He's___ to be washing the car. A. hoped B. thought C. supposed D. expected III. Supply the correct form of the words in brackets. Forests from an integral component of the (21. SPHERE)___ are essential to the (22. STABILITY)___ of global climate and the management of water and land. They are home for (23. COUNT)___ plants and animals that are vital elements of our life-supporting systems, as well as for millions of forest (24. DWELL)___ . They provide goods for direct (25. CONSUME)___ (including recreational activities) and land for food production. They also represent capital when converted to shelter and (26. FRASTRUCTURE)___ . The two main types of forests are tropical, which are rich in (27. DIVERSITY)___ and valuable tropical (28. WOOD)___ and temperate, which serve as the world’s primary source of industrial wood. The temperate forests (1.5 billion hectares) can be found mainly in developed countries, whereas the tropical forests (both moist and dry, (29. TOTAL)___ about 1.5 billion ha each) stretch across the developing world. Two thirds of the tropical moist forests are in Latin America, with the (30. REMAIN)___ split between Africa and Asia; three quarters of the tropical dry forests are in Africa.
2. IV. Each sentence below has four underlined words or phrases marked A, B, C, D. Circle one underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct. 31. My father used to giving me some good advice whenever I had a problem. A. a problem B. whenever C. some good D. giving 32. The woman of whom the red car is parked in front of the bank is a famous pop star. A. is parked B. of whom the C. a famous pop star D. front of 33. The better you are at English, more chance you have to get a job with international organizations. A. a job B. better C. are at D. more chance 34. There are differences and similarities between Vietnamese and American culture. A. Vietnamese B. and similarities C. There are D. culture 35. Society will be having to change radically to keep pace with the technology available. A. with B. Society C. available D. will be having V. Each of the numbered lines in the passage contains a mistake, find and correct it. VI. Read the following passage then choose the best answer from the four options (marked A, B, C and D) to complete the numbered blanks in the passage. Several years ago while I was visiting Athens for a few weeks, I decided to spend a whole day on a nearby island. The weather (46)___ had predicted that it would be a scorching hot day so (47)___ off early in the morning. Even though I arrived at the port in plenty of time, I was forced to sit on the top (48)___because other passengers who had got to the boat earlier filled the lower ones. Soon after the boat had departed, somebody came round with raffle tickets. There were, as far as I could make (49)___two prizes: a bag of fresh fish and several (50)___ of chocolate. I bought a ticket, not expecting to win as I had never won anything in a raffle (51)___. Some time later the person who had sold the tickets announced the winning numbers. To my great surprise, I had won the chocolate. I was naturally delighted, but (52)___how I could prevent it from (853)___in the intense heat. Realizing that I could not possible eat it all myself, I (54)___it with the passengers sitting near me. In return, they offered me sandwiches and (55)___drinks. All in all, it was a pleasant start to a memorable day with my new acquaintances. 46. A. prediction B. prophecy C. forecast D. foresight 47. A. went B. left C. departed D. set 48. A. deck B. layer C. floor D. storey 49. A. up B. out C. for D. over 50. A. bars B. slices C. cartons D. packets 51. A. again B. before C. since D. already 52. A. thought B. questioned C. wondered D. regarded 53. A. dissolving B. liquefying C. melting D. spreading 54. A. separated B. divided C. distributed D. shared 55. A. soft B. light C. bubbly D. sparkling VII. Read the following passage and then choose one word to fill in each blank.
3. MTV stands for Music Television. It's a television (56)___ dedicated to pop music. It was (57)___ on 1st August 1981 in the United States. Because of MTV's instant success in the US, the company expanded into other (58)___. MTV Europe (59)___ operating on 1st August 1987. MTV Europe (60)___ 24 hours a day from its London studios. It can be seen in 33 countries and reaches an estimated (61)___ of 110 million viewers. People of 19 different nationalities work at London headquarters, and they try to offer a (62) of music from all over Europe. The channel broadcasts in (63)___ but Germany provides the biggest number of viewers. Currently, one fifth of the (64)___ is by German artists. Most of TV output is video and concerts, but there is also a programme (65)___ Unplugged, where major artists play live and acoustic in front of a small studio audience. VIII. Choose from A, B, C, or D the one that best answers each of the questions in the following passage. The Stone Age was a period of history which began in approximately two million B.C and lasted until 3000 B.C. Its name was derived from the stone tools and weapons that modern scientists found. This period was divided into the Paleolithic, Mesolithic, and Neolithic Ages. During the first period (2 million to 8000 B.C), the first hatchet and use of fire for heating and cooking were developed. As a result of the Ice Age, which evolved about one million years into the Paleolithic Age, people were forced to seek shelter in caves, wear clothing, and developed new tools. During the Mesolithic Age (8000 to 6000 B.C), people made crude pottery and the first fish hooks, took dogs hunting, and developed the bow and arrow, which was used until the fourteenth century A.D. The Neolithic Age (6000 to 3000 B.C) saw humankind domesticating sheep, goats, pigs, and cattle, being less nomadic than in previous eras, establishing permanent settlements, and creating governments. 66. Into how many periods was the Stone Age divided? A. two B. three C. four D. five 67. The word “derived” is closest meaning to___. A. originated B. destroyed C. inferred D. discussed 68. Which of the following was developed earliest? A. fish hook B. bow and arrow C. hatchet D. pottery 69. Which of the following developments is NOT related to the conditions of the Ice Age? A. farming B. clothing C. living indoors D. using fire 70. The word “crude” is closest meaning to___. A. extravagant B. complex C. vulgar D. primitive 71. The author states that the Stone Age was so named because___. A. it was very durable like stone B. there was little vegetation C. the stools and weapons was made of stone D. the people lived in stone caves 72. The word “nomadic” is closest meaning to___. A. sedentary B. wandering C. primitive D. inquisitive 73. The word “eras” is closest meaning to___. A. families B. periods C. herds D. tools 74. Which of the following best describes the Mesolithic Age? A. people were inventive B. people were warriors C. People stayed indoors all the time D. people were crude 75. With what subject is the passage mainly concerned? A. The Neolithic Age B. The Stone Age C. The Ice Age D. The Paleolithic Age IX. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it. 76. I left without saying goodbye as I didn’t want to disturb the meeting. → Rather___. 77. There aren’t many other books which explain this problem so well. → In few other books___. 78. I dislike it when people criticize me unfairly. → I object___.
4. 79. Robert is sorry now that he didn’t accept the job. → Robert now wishes___. 80. I am having a lot of trouble now because I host my passport last week. → If I___. 81. When the police caught him, he was climbing over the garden wall. → The police caught___. 82. It’s sad, but unemployment is unlikely to go down this year. → Sad___. 83. It is believed that the man escaped in a stolen car. → The man is___. 84. Since we had nothing else to do, we decided to go for a walk. → Having___. 85. “Nothing will persuade me to sleep in that haunted house,” she said. → She flatly___. X. Writing an essay. “Economic start-up projects among the young nowadays make us believe in a prosperous future for the nation”. What do you think of that matter? Write an essay of about 280- 300 words to support your points. ___THE END___
5. KEYS - ENGLISH PRACTICE 60 I. (5pts) 1 point/correct answer. 1. B 2. B 3. D 4. B 5. D II. 15pts: 1pt/ item 6. B 7. A 8. B 9. A 10. C 11. D 12. A 13. A 14. C 15. A 16. D 17. D 18. A 19. B 20. C III. 10pts: 1 point/correct answer. 21. biosphere 23. countless 25. consumption 27. biodiversity 29. totally 22. stabilization 24. dwellers 26. infrastructure 28. hardwood 30. Remainder IV. 5pts: 1 point/correct answer. 31. D 32. B 33. D 34. D 35. D V. 10pts: 1 point/correct answer. 36. Is → Does 39. most → more 42. is → are 44. Made → Make 37. feeling → feel 40. possibly → possible 43. confidently → 45. opportunities → 38. real → really 41. provides → provide confident opportunity VI. 15pts: 1 point/correct answer. 46. C 47. D 48. A 49. B 50. A 51. B 52. C 53. C 54. D 55. A VII. 15pts: 1 point/correct answer. 56. channel 58. areas 60. broadcast 62. mixture 64. music 57. born 59. began/ started 61. audience 63. English 65. called VIII. 15pts: 1 point/correct answer. 66. B 67. A 68. C 69. A 70. D 71. C 72. B 73. B 74. A 75. B IX. (10pts) 1 point/correct answer. 71 → Rather than disturb the meeting, I left without saying goodbye. . → In few other books would one see this problem so well- explained. 72 → I object to people criticizing me unfairly. . → Robert now wishes (that) he had taken/accepted the job. 73 → If I hadn’t lost my passport last week, I wouldn’t have been having so much trouble . now. 74 → The police caught him (as he was) climbing over the garden wall. . → Sad though/as it is, unemployment is unlikely to go down this year. 75 → The man is believed to have escaped in a stolen car. . → Having nothing else to do, we decided to go for a walk. → She flatly refused to sleep in that haunted house. X. 76. 77. (15pts) Students’ own answers 78. Content: accounts for 50% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 50% for the 79. content, the candidates should provide all main ideas and details as appropriate. 80. Language: accounts for 30% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 30% for language, the candidates should use variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language high school students. Presentation: accounts for 20% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 20% for presentation, the candidates should write with coherence, cohesion and can use appropriate styles and linking devices ___THE END___